So what would happen if you tested someone with a base 5 but when they came in they want a base 1?
Let's say the skin test was fine and there was no reaction, but when they come in and have their hair done with a base 1 they have a reaction.
I know sometimes a skin test can be fine but a reaction can still occur when having a full head, but, wouldn't your insurance be invalid if you haven't actually tested them with the product that you will be using?
Also, my hairdresser only tests with the colour and not the developer.
I actually only found this out the other day.
Someone came in for a patch test and the hairdresser wasn't in. Only the other beauty therapist was in and she rang me to ask how to do a patch test. I didn't hear the call but she called the hairdresser and asked her how to do it and she said to just apply the dye and not the developer.
When i arrived at work the beauty therapist asked how i had given patch tests to clients. I said that i had mixed the dye and developer together and done it like that, the same way as i would for an eyelash tint. The hairdresser said that i should just apply the colour. I said 'oh i thought it was the same as for eyelash tints'. So i thought i will make sure i do it with just the dye in future. Now i very very rarely give patch tests to hair clients as the hairdresser is usually there but i have done it a couple of times.
Now after reading this, I am thinking that maybe you do a patch test with the dye and developer.
Can someone please clarify this for me as I want to make sure we are doing this the correct way!